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Trinitarians
are frequently confused by the language of Scripture.
There are two main reasons for this:
- Because
they are rarely taught to study it in any detail.
- Because
even when they do come to study it, they
do so through a filter of unBiblical, post-1st
Century preconceptions.
Trinitarians have an alarming tendency to forget
(or even ignore, when it suits them) the fact that
the earliest Christians were Jews - and that,
consequently, these faithful men and women occasionally
employed language which can only be fully
understood within the context of their ancient conceptual
framework. The Biblical principle of name-bearing
(also known as "agency", or "representation") is
a classic example.
What is the principle of name-bearing, and
why is it so important?
Trinitarian scholar James F. McGrath explains what
it is...
In order to understand this, we need to understand
that Jesus - and also the heavenly Word - were
understood in terms of what we may call ‘agency’:
these figures, like the Old Testament prophets,
angels and many others, were ‘agents’ of God.
Now when we use this term we don’t mean that they
sold houses for God or booked gigs for God to
perform at local clubs on Saturday nights.
When we speak of ‘agency’
we are speaking of what in Greek would have been
called ‘apostleship’ - the situation in which
someone is sent to represent someone else.
In the days before mobile phones, fax machines,
the internet and telecommunications, this was
an essential part of life. If a king wanted to
make peace with another nation, he did not go
in person - or at least not in the first instance
- but sent his ambassador. When a wealthy person
wanted to arrange a property purchase or sale
in another region, he sent a representative. When
God wanted to address his people, he sent a prophet
or an angel. Agency was an important part of everyday
life in the ancient world.
Now there were certain basic rules or assumptions
connected with agency in the ancient world. The
most basic of all was that, in the words of later
Jewish rabbis: “The one sent is like the one who
sent him” (cf. Mek.Ex. 12:3,6; m. Ber. 5:5).
Or, in words which are probably better known to
those of us familiar with the New Testament, “He
who receives you receives me, and he who receives
me receives not me but the one who sent me” (Matt.
10:40). These are words which the Gospels record
Jesus as saying to his apostles, and ‘apostle’
is simply the Greek word for ‘one who is sent’,
an ‘agent.’
When someone sent an
agent, the agent was given the full authority
of the sender to speak and act on his behalf.
If the agent made an agreement, it was completely
binding, as if the person who sent him had made
it in person.
Conversely, if someone rejected an agent he rejected
the one who sent him. The agent was thus functionally
equal or equivalent to the one who sent him, precisely
because he was subordinate and obedient to, and
submitted to the will of, him who sent him.
A Lecture by Dr James F. McGrath, presented
at the North of England Institute for Christian
Education Sixth Form Study Day, University of
Durham, 27 March 1998.
...while two Christadelphian authors explain why
it is so important:
We will show that when they were engaged on
His work God sometimes permitted other beings
to speak as if they were God Himself, indeed even
to use His personal Name. This principle we term
'God Manifestation'. Clearly if this is
understood it will have far-reaching implications
when we consider those passages that speak of
Christ as God.
Southgate, Peter & Broughton, James (1995),
The Trinity - True or False?.
Broughton and Southgate refer to Deuteronomy
29:1-10 (where Moses speaks as the representative
of God) as an example of God permitting "other beings
to speak as if they were God Himself, indeed even
to use His personal Name."
Let us now examine that passage:
These are the words of the covenant, which
the LORD commanded Moses to make with the children
of Israel in the land of Moab, beside the covenant
which he made with them in Horeb.
And Moses called unto
all Israel, and said unto them,
Ye have seen all that the LORD did before your
eyes in the land of Egypt unto Pharaoh, and unto
all his servants, and unto all his land;
The great temptations which thine eyes have seen,
the signs, and those great miracles:
Yet the LORD hath not given you a heart to perceive,
and eyes to see, and ears to hear, unto this day.
And I have led you
forty years in the wilderness:
your clothes are not waxen old upon you, and thy
shoe is not waxen old upon thy foot.
Ye have not eaten bread, neither have ye drunk
wine or strong drink: that
ye might know that I am the LORD your God.
And when ye came unto this place, Sihon the king
of Heshbon, and Og the king of Bashan, came out
against us unto battle, and we smote them:
And we took their land, and gave it for an inheritance
unto the Reubenites, and to the Gadites, and to
the half tribe of Manasseh.
Keep therefore the words of this covenant, and
do them, that ye may prosper in all that ye do.
Ye stand this day all of you before the LORD your
God; your captains of your tribes, your elders,
and your officers, with all the men of Israel,
Here, Moses makes reference to Yahweh
in the third person. But he also
speaks - without qualification
- as if he
is Yahweh
himself.
Thus:
Yet the LORD [clearly referring
to God in the "third person"] hath not given
you a heart to perceive, and eyes to see, and
ears to hear, unto this day.
And I have led you forty years in the wilderness:
your clothes are not waxen old upon you, and thy
shoe is not waxen old upon thy foot.
Ye have not eaten bread, neither have ye drunk
wine or strong drink: that ye might know that
I am the LORD your God [clearly employing
the "first person" narrative; as if MOSES is God.]
So we see that:
- The
later verses make no distinction between the
work of Moses and the work of God.
- Moses
literally speaks on God's behalf in verse
6, without even adding the usual qualifier "Thus
saith Yahweh..." He appears to claim
for himself, the authority of God - and of course,
as an agent of God, he is perfectly entitled
to do so.
The "far-reaching implications" to which Broughton
and Southgate refer, are seen most clearly in those
passages where Jesus is accused by his adversaries
of exercising the unique prerogatives of God.
Thus:
- Mark
2:5-7.
When Jesus saw their faith, he said unto the
sick of the palsy, Son, thy sins be forgiven
thee.
But there were certain of the scribes sitting
there, and reasoning in their hearts,
Why doth this man thus speak blasphemies? who
can forgive sins but God only?
- John
5:16-18.
And therefore did the Jews persecute Jesus,
and sought to slay him, because he had done
these things on the sabbath day.
But Jesus answered them, My Father worketh hitherto,
and I work.
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him,
because he not only had broken the sabbath,
but said also that God was his Father, making
himself equal with God.
- John
10:30-33.
I and my Father are one.
Then the Jews took up stones again to stone
him.
Jesus answered them, Many good works have I
showed you from my Father; for which of those
works do ye stone me?
The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work
we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and
because that thou, being a man, makest thyself
God.
Discerning readers will recognise these quotes as
standard Trinitarian proof texts. But do they really
say what the Trinitarian argument requires them
to say?
McGrath insists that they do not!
Thus:
This helps us to understand what is at issue
in John 5. The issue is not whether there is
really only one God - John affirms explicitly
that he believes that there is only one true God.
Rather the debate centers around Jesus’ relationship
to the one God.
Jesus claims to do what God does. If he is
God’s appointed agent, then there is no reason
to regard this as illegitimate: it would not be
the first time that God appointed one of his agents
to act or speak on his behalf, to proclaim his
message and do his works. However, ‘the Jews’
as they are presented in the Gospel of John do
not recognize Jesus as one who has been appointed
by God. They thus accuse him of “making himself
equal to God.”
That is to say, the problem is not ‘equality
with God’ in and of itself, but whether Jesus
acts in this way as God’s agent. The issue is
whether Jesus has been sent by God and is obedient
to God, or whether he is a rebellious, glory-seeking
upstart who claims divine prerogatives for himself.
‘The Jews’ accuse Jesus of making himself equal
to God - that is to say, they accuse him of putting
himself on the level of God, by claiming to do
what God does when he has not in fact been appointed
by God. They thus feel that Jesus has committed
blasphemy: by making these claims, he is felt
to have insulted God.
[...]
How is Jesus portrayed as responding to this charge?
He adamantly denies it. Listen to the words
which are used:
“The Son can do nothing of himself; he can do
only what he sees his Father doing...By myself
I can do nothing...I seek not to please myself
but him who sent me” (John 5:19,30).
Jesus is emphatically said to be God’s obedient
Son and agent. In the ancient near east, the eldest
son was usually the principle agent of his father.
A son was also expected to learn his father’s
trade, watching him carefully and learning to
imitate his Father. John has this in mind when
he uses this type of language to justify the actions
and claims of Jesus: Jesus does what God does,
and as one who shares in a Father-Son relationship
with God, that is precisely what should be expected.
Only if Jesus were a disobedient son would he
not do what he sees his Father doing. There is
thus no problem of monotheism in John 5.
The issue is about whether Jesus is putting
himself on a par with God, seeking his own glory
in a way that detracts from the glory and honor
due to God alone. John emphasizes that Jesus is
in fact God’s appointed agent, and because this
is the case there is nothing illegitimate about
his behavior: he does what God does not as one
who is rebelling against the divine authority
by setting himself up as a rival to the unique
honor and glory of God, but as God’s obedient
Son and agent whom he sent into the world.
A Lecture by Dr James F. McGrath, presented
at the North of England Institute for Christian
Education Sixth Form Study Day, University of
Durham, 27 March 1998.
You
will see that McGrath's argument is established
upon two essential principles:
- Name-bearing.
(Agency and representation.)
- The
subordination of the Son. (Jesus as the suffering
servant, ever-obedient to the Father.)
Both of these may be clearly identified in the body
of the text itself:
When someone sent an agent, the agent was given
the full authority
of the sender
to speak and act on his behalf.
[...]
That is to say, the problem is not ‘equality with
God’ in and of itself, but whether
Jesus acts in this way as God’s agent.
The issue is whether Jesus has been sent by God
and is obedient to God, or whether he is a rebellious,
glory-seeking upstart who claims divine prerogatives
for himself. ‘The Jews’ accuse Jesus of making
himself equal to God - that is to say, they
accuse him of putting himself on the level of
God, by claiming to do what God does when he has
not in fact been appointed by God.
[...]
How is Jesus portrayed as responding to this charge?
He adamantly denies
it. Listen
to the words which are used:
“The Son can do nothing of himself; he can do
only what he sees his Father doing...By myself
I can do nothing...I seek not to please myself
but him who sent me” (John 5:19,30).
[...]
The issue is about whether
Jesus is putting himself on a par with God, seeking
his own glory in a way that detracts from the
glory and honor due to God alone.
John emphasizes that Jesus is in fact God’s appointed
agent, and because this is the case there is nothing
illegitimate about his behavior: he does what
God does not as one
who is rebelling against the divine authority
by setting himself up as a rival to the unique
honor and glory of God, but as God’s obedient
Son and agent whom he sent into the world.
Dr
James D. G. Dunn (Lightfoot Professor of Divinity
at the University of Durham) obviously concurs with
McGrath's analysis. In the following excerpt,
he identifies the Hellenic abuse of Scripture which
led to the confession of Christ as God, rather than
the Son of God. Of particular interest to
us is the Gentile mishandling of traditional Jewish
honorifics, such as adon.
Thus:
Should we then say
that Jesus was confessed as God from earliest
days in Hellenistic Christianity? That would be
to claim too much.
(1) The emergence of a confession of Jesus in
terms of divinity was largely facilitated by the
extensive use of Ps. 110:1 from very early on
(most clearly in Mark 12:36; Acts 2:34ff.; I Cor.
15:25; Heb. 1:13): "the
Lord says to my lord: 'Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies your footstool.'"
Its importance lies in the double use of 'lord.'
The one is clearly Yahweh, but who is the other?
Clearly not Yahweh,
but an exalted being whom the psalmist calls 'lord.'
(2) Paul calls Jesus 'lord,' but
he seems to have marked reservations about calling
Jesus 'God.'
Rom. 9:5 is the only real candidate within Paul's
letters (but even there the text is unclear).
Similarly he refrains
from praying to Jesus. He prays to God through
Christ. At
the same time Paul affirms Jesus is 'Lord'
he also affirms 'God is One,' 'There
is only one God' (Deut. 6:4). Hence also Rom.
3:30, Gal. 3:20, I Tim. 2:5 (cp. James 2:19).
The point for us to
note is that Paul can hail Jesus as Lord not in
order to identify him with God, but rather, if
anything, to distinguish him from the One God
(cp. particularly I Cor. 15:24-28).
Dunn, James D. G. (1977), Unity and Diversity
in the New Testament.
Curiously
enough, Trinitarians will agree that Jesus
is not equal to the Father in one sense (for
they are forced to accept the "Functional Subordinationism"
of Christian "orthodoxy"), whilst simultaneoulsy
contradicting themselves with an argument
from these "Jesus making himself equal with God"
passages!
When pressed for an explanation, they respond with
either:
- An
admission of inconsistency (but an overall "I
don't really care what you think!" attitude.)
- A
desperate attempt to claim that the "equality"
here referred to, is that of nature,
not function (thereby arguing that Jesus
is functionally subordinate, but ontologically
equal to the Father.)
Neither response is adequate, and both
of them present more problems than they actually
solve. The latter is actually more problematic
than the former, for it leaves Trinitarians with
the unenviable task of defending ontological
equality from a series of passages which consistently
employs the language of functional subordination!
Such blatant attempts to pervert the clear meaning
of Scripture can only be pitied...
Meanwhile,
McGrath's argument is fully supported by the
Word of God itself. Name-bearing is a Biblical
principle, and we see it reinforced again and
again, throughout both Testaments.
Observe the consistency of Scripture:
- Exodus
5:23.
For since I came to Pharaoh to speak in
thy name
,
he hath done evil to this people; neither hast
thou delivered thy people at all.
- Deuteronomy
18:19.
And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will
not hearken unto my words which he shall speak
in my name
,
I will require it of him.
- Deuteronomy
18:20.
But the prophet, which shall presume to speak
a word in my name
,
which I have not commanded him to speak, or that
shall speak in the name of other gods, even that
prophet shall die.
- I
Samuel 25:5.
And David sent out ten young men, and David
said unto the young men, Get you up to Carmel,
and go to Nabal, and greet him in my name
:
- II
Chronicles 14:11.
And Asa cried unto the LORD his God, and said,
LORD, it is nothing with thee to help, whether
with many, or with them that have no power:
help us, O LORD our God; for we rest on thee,
and in thy name
we go against this multitude. O LORD, thou art
our God; let not man prevail against thee.
- Psalm
89:24.
But my faithfulness and my mercy shall be with
him: and in my name
shall his horn be exalted.
- Jeremiah
14:14.
Then the LORD said unto me, The prophets prophesy
lies in my name
:
I sent them not, neither have I commanded them,
neither spoke unto them: they prophesy unto you
a false vision and divination, and a thing of
naught, and the deceit of their heart.
- Jeremiah
14:15.
Therefore thus saith the LORD concerning the
prophets that prophesy in my name
,
and I sent them not, yet they say, Sword and famine
shall not be in this land; By sword and famine
shall those prophets be consumed.
- Jeremiah
23:25.
I have heard what the prophets said, that prophesy
lies in my name
,
saying, I have dreamed, I have dreamed.
- Jeremiah
27:15.
For I have not sent them, saith the LORD, yet
they prophesy a lie in my name
;
that I might drive you out, and that ye might
perish, ye, and the prophets that prophesy unto
you.
- Jeremiah
29:9.
For they prophesy falsely unto you in my
name
:
I have not sent them, saith the LORD.
- Jeremiah
29:21.
Thus saith the LORD of hosts, the God of Israel,
of Ahab the son of Kolaiah, and of Zedekiah
the son of Maaseiah, which prophesy a lie unto
you in my name
;
Behold, I will deliver them into the hand of Nebuchadnezzar
king of Babylon; and he shall slay them before
your eyes;
- Jeremiah
29:25.
Thus speaketh the LORD of hosts, the God of
Israel, saying, Because thou hast sent letters
in thy name
unto all the people that are at Jerusalem, and
to Zephaniah the son of Maaseiah the priest, and
to all the priests, saying,
- Daniel
9:6.
Neither have we hearkened unto thy servants
the prophets, which spoke in thy name
to our kings, our princes, and our fathers, and
to all the people of the land.
- Mark
3:38.
And John answered him, saying, Master, we saw
one casting out devils in thy name
,
and he followeth not us: and we forbade him, because
he followeth not us.
- Matthew
7:22.
Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord,
have we not prophesied in thy name
and in thy name have cast out devils? and
in thy name done many wonderful works?
- John
17:12.
While I was with them in the world, I kept them
in thy name
:
those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none
of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that
the Scripture might be fulfilled.
- Revelation
2:13.
I know thy works, and where thou dwellest, even
where Satan's seat is: and thou holdest
fast my name
,
and hast not denied my faith, even in those days
wherein Antipas was my faithful martyr, who was
slain among you, where Satan dwelleth.
- Revelation
3:1.
And unto the angel of the church in Sardis write;
These things saith he that hath the seven Spirits
of God, and the seven stars; I know thy works,
that thou hast a name that thou livest, and
art dead.
Interesting that Antipas was “slain among you
where Satan dwelleth.” Anyone care to explain
where this was?
Somewhere hot, I presume...
Let
us conclude with two examples of agency in action.
First, an example from the Old Testament:
Judges 6:12-14.
And the angel of the
LORD appeared
unto him, and said unto him, The LORD is with
thee, thou mighty man of valor.
And Gideon said unto him, Oh my
Lord, if the
LORD be with us, why then is all this befallen
us? and where be all his miracles which our fathers
told us of, saying, Did not the LORD bring us
up from Egypt? but now the LORD hath forsaken
us, and delivered us into the hands of the Midianites.
And the LORD
looked upon him, and said, Go in this thy might,
and thou shalt save Israel from the hand of the
Midianites: have not I sent thee?
The passage in question leaves us in no doubt as
to the identity of Gideon's visitor; it was
the representative angel of Yahweh.
(The New English Translation consitently refers
to this angel as "God's angelic messenger.")
It was clearly not Yahweh
Himself.
Notice that Gideon addresses the angel in verse
13 as "My lord" (adon),
while in verse 14 we are told that "the LORD [Yahweh]
looked upon him", thereby equating the angel with
Yahweh Himself.
The apparent contradiction is reconciled by the
principles of agency and representation. As Yahweh's
representative, the angel is free to speak on His
behalf - and so the narrator credits him with the
Divine Name.
But Gideon himself is fully aware that he is not
literally speaking to God, for he confirms this
for us in verse 22:
And when Gideon perceived that he was an
angel of the LORD, Gideon said, Alas, O Lord
GOD! for because I have seen an angel of
the LORD face to face.
That same dread awe which Yahweh inspired
in His people, is here ascribed to the angel of
His presence. The two are referred to both individually
and collectively - but Yahweh Himself is
still recognised as the original source of the
message.
Finally,
an example from the New Testament:
John 4:1-3.
When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees
had heard that Jesus
made and baptized more disciples than John,
(Though Jesus himself baptized not, but his disciples,)
He left Judea, and departed again into Galilee.
The very first verse of this chapter turns upon
the issue of agency and representation. It enables
us to explain how certain acts which are attributed
to God, can also be attributed to Christ - without
proving that he (Christ) is God.
This is more easily seen when we break the passage
into separate verses:
John 4:1.
When therefore the Lord knew how the Pharisees
had heard that Jesus made and baptized more disciples
than John,
Here we are told that Jesus baptised more disciples
than John. But is that really
what John is trying to tell us?
Let's look again:
John 4:2.
(Though Jesus baptised not, but his disciples)
Here we have the explanation of the original verse.
Jesus himself
was not the one who was literally baptising; it
was his disciples who performed this work. But the
ritual was performed in Jesus' name and under
his auspices - and for this reason, it is legitimately
ascribed to him.
Adam Clarke's Commentary
has:
Joh 4:2 - Jesus himself baptized not -
See Joh_3:22.
Crossing to Clarke's notes on John
3:22, we find:
And baptized -
It is not clear that Christ did baptize any with
water, but his disciples did - Joh_4:2; and
what they did, by his authority and command, is
attributed to himself. It is a common custom,
in all countries and in all languages, to attribute
the operations of those who are under the government
and direction of another to him by whom they are
directed and governed.
Some however suppose that Christ at first did
baptize; but, when he got disciples, he left this
work to them: and thus these two places are to
be understood: -
1. this place, of Christ’s baptizing before he
called the twelve disciples; and
2. Joh_4:2, of the baptism administered by the
disciples, after they had been called to the work
by Christ.
Writing
in his own Commentary, James Burton Coffman
confirms the point.
Of John 4:2 he says:
See under John 3:22-26. An
important deduction from the fact of Jesus'
many baptisms, none of which were administered
by himself personally, yet being referred to as
his baptisms and his accomplishment,
is this: All who are baptized in obedience to
God's specific command, and by the hand of
the Lord's disciples in harmony with his will,
are truly baptized by Jesus! In
the light of this undeniable fact, what becomes
of the human allegation that would make of Christian
baptism "a work of human righteousness"? It is
no such thing, but an act of the Lord himself.
Of John 3:22
he says:
Nothing may be made of the fact that Jesus
did not baptize, but his disciples baptized. See
under John 4:2. What one does through his agents
he is lawfully said to do; therefore Jesus baptized.
Why did he refrain from doing so personally? It
might have given rise to jealousies and strife,
later on, through some claiming greater privilege
in having been baptized personally by the Lord.
Perhaps, as noted above, it was to avoid any mistaken
notion that Jesus was one of John's subordinates.
Furthermore, although Jesus had submitted to God's
baptism as preached by John, and for a time administered
by himself through his disciples, he was nevertheless
above John's baptism in the sense that baptism
in his own blessed name was designed to succeed
it. For more on the baptism of Christ, see my
Commentary on Matthew, Matt. 3:13.
And so the Biblical principles of agency and representation
are reaffirmed yet again. |