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#1 User is offline   echad 

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Posted 10 March 2003 - 09:00 PM

I am trying to verify a remark read in the study site for the "Concordant New Testament" which claims that the Greek word "Theos", (translated, of course, "God" in english) was derived from the Greek meaning "placer" or "subjector". I haven't been able to find any root word studies on this and Strong's only gives "God", in general, as the definition.
Can anyone verify this (placer/subjector) or has anyone evidence to the contrary?

Thanks,
Chris
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#2 User is offline   Evangelion 

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Post icon  Posted 12 March 2003 - 03:35 AM

echad - I have seen this explanation given on various Websites (including Trinitarian ones) but have yet to find an authoritative source to verify it.

The definition could very well be true (and given the quality of work for which the Concordant New Testament is known, it most likely is) but I am reluctant to be dogmatic on the matter without an academic reference to support a conclusion either way.
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#3 User is offline   echad 

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Posted 12 March 2003 - 03:40 PM

EV,

My reason for investigation of this contention is that it would even more clearly define the "relative" status of Theos (God). Humans in authority are "placers/subjectors" ("...YE are gods") - Christ is a "placer/subjector" of his disciples - ("as the Father has sent me, so send I you") - but the ULTIMATE "placer/subjector" is God the Father. God the Father is the ONLY "p/s" with NO "p/s" OVER Him. Therefore, He is the "only TRUE God", "true" as in the source or prime initiator of any "chain of command". Even if Christ is portrayed as the "2nd Person of the Trinity" (pre-Nazareth) his status is NOT equal with the Father (as "Theos" in the ultimate sense) because he has a "Theos" OVER himself. Ditto the Holy Spirit. The other "persons" of the preposed Trinity are OF/SENT BY the Father - the Father is the only "true" Theos because He is the only one who is not "of" or "sent by" ANYONE.
This SHOULD be evident simply by the fact that Theos (and "Elohim" for that matter) are applied to God/angels or even human magistrates, but a further definition of the word (Theos) arising from the concept of "placer/subjector" would make this truth even more inescapable.

Chris
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#4 User is offline   Evangelion 

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Post icon  Posted 13 March 2003 - 02:16 PM

echad - I agree with your analysis. Of course, the relative status of the Father in relation to the Son is clearly qualified, even without an appeal to the "subjector" argument - but yes, it would make sense if this were so.
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#5 User is offline   elpis 

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Posted 18 March 2003 - 09:49 AM

Here are some extracts from the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament (TDNT), Vol III, page 68.

"In the Hellenistic period an outstanding ruler may be called a theos as the creator of a new political order: ...Demetrius Polioketes and his father Antigonos are celebrated as theoi soteres in Athens.....In the Hellenic cult of the ruler and the Roman cult of emperor, theos becomes a designation of office."

Its the closest I could find in a fairly hurried scan of the pages (of which there are many!!).

PS Can anyone tell me how to show Greek characters in a post - the fonts available all seem to be English?
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#6 User is offline   Gileade 

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Posted 19 September 2003 - 01:57 PM

I just did a little research on θεός but all my dictionaries give the translation as a deity, God and one of them Magistrate. :book:

- a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities

nothing new.. sorry
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#7 Guest_Alethia_*

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Posted 19 September 2003 - 04:02 PM

In any case, you are looking for derivation, not meaning. The two should not be confused. Derivation can be quite different from meaning, and is for all practical purposes nothing more than historical trivia or curiosity. We can find all sorts of examples in English where it would be totally silly to apply any lesson from derivation to the actual usage of the word.

I have a book entitled: "Word Origins and Their Romantic History," which talks about the history of a number of English words. It should not be in any way confused with a dictionary.

Confusing word derivation with meaning is a primary fallacy of Scriptural exegesis.
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#8 User is offline   Gileade 

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Posted 19 September 2003 - 04:10 PM

:oops: OOOPS :blink:

Thank you for clarifying.
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#9 Guest_Alethia_*

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Posted 19 September 2003 - 04:17 PM

Gileade, I was not aiming my comment at you, but more at the question that echad posed. Your response was fine. You addressed meaning, not derivation. I agree with your comment.
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#10 User is offline   JesusMyWisdom 

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Posted 27 March 2004 - 05:11 AM

Alethia, on Sep 19 2003, 04:02 PM, said:

In any case, you are looking for derivation, not meaning. The two should not be confused. Derivation can be quite different from meaning, and is for all practical purposes nothing more than historical trivia or curiosity. We can find all sorts of examples in English where it would be totally silly to apply any lesson from derivation to the actual usage of the word.

I have a book entitled: "Word Origins and Their Romantic History," which talks about the history of a number of English words. It should not be in any way confused with a dictionary.

Confusing word derivation with meaning is a primary fallacy of Scriptural exegesis.

Etymological derivation is very important to UNDERSTANDING the core meaning of a word.

Quite often we take the meaning to be whatever English word we used to translate a word. This is the WORST kind of "exegesis."

JMW
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#11 User is offline   EliYah 

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Posted 15 November 2004 - 12:00 PM

2 points:

1) Is there anything substantial or worth consideration in the idea that the Greek word Theos is derived and closely related to the Greek name Zeus? I doubt that this idea is right and accepting it has catastrophic effects on the whole inspiration of Scripture.

2) Dr John Thomas, in translating and commenting on the word Theos considered that the word 'God' was not appropriate for different reasons. The reason he gives is its anglo-saxon derivation from the word 'Good' which does NOT give the correct meaning of the word 'Theos' at all. Also, it is worth noting how tthe German word 'Gott' came about. The word 'God' backwards makes the word 'Dog'. Interesting to note that there was a deity worshipped by the Celts at one point, poss. 800BC - and its name was 'GOD' (which at that time did not suggest even a certain gender). This was not connected with the Israelite worship of Yahweh, the true deity.

This is my point anyhow - Dr John Thomas, rightyly I believe,. concluded that 'Theos' ought to be rendered by 'the Deity' and not 'God'.
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#12 User is offline   InChristAlways 

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Posted 10 April 2006 - 08:24 PM

Quote

This is my point anyhow - Dr John Thomas, rightyly I believe,. concluded that 'Theos' ought to be rendered by 'the Deity' and not 'God'.
Does anyone have any many time the article "the" is used before the word Theos and what is the purpose of using it. Thanks.

One example is here where the article "the" is used:

Quote

Revelation 11:1:And given to me a reed like unto [a] staff saying: Be Ye Arousing!!!!! and Measure Ye!!!!! the Sanctuary/Temple of the God,

Luke 21:22 "For these are the DAYS of VENGEANCE, that ALL THINGS which are WRITTEN may be FULFILLED1 Peter 4:7 But the End of ALL THINGS is NIGH at Hand; therefore be serious and watchful in your prayers.!
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#13 User is offline   He-man 

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Posted 11 April 2006 - 01:36 AM

View PostInChristAlways, on Apr 10 2006, 03:24 PM, said:

Quote

This is my point anyhow - Dr John Thomas, rightyly I believe,. concluded that 'Theos' ought to be rendered by 'the Deity' and not 'God'.
Does anyone have any many time the article "the" is used before the word Theos and what is the purpose of using it. Thanks.

One example is here where the article "the" is used:

Quote

Revelation 11:1:And given to me a reed like unto [a] staff saying: Be Ye Arousing!!!!! and Measure Ye!!!!! the Sanctuary/Temple of the God,


αΘεοσ 112 An atheist, one without God. Eph 2:12
δαιμων 1142 A god, diety; a good, or evil spirit; a demon. Matt 8:31
ελωι 1682 Aram. Eloi, i.e. my God. Mk 15:34
ηλι 2241 Aram. Eli, i.e. my God. Mt 27:46
Θεοσ 2316 Theos, God, a god, a magistrate.
elohyim is used extensively in the OT and can mean any of the goddess, god like, and plural intensive singular to mean God. αγγελοσ 32 ισ An angel, messenger.
These are all the ways I could find that defined the word God, god, or my God. However in the actual Greek writings the only God that is capitalized is Θσ (Theos) with a line over the top to signify that they are referring to the God of Israel, and not the god Zeus and is so rendered in these three 3rd and 4th Century MSS which are the earkiest ones in existance today.
Codex Vaticanus (B),( Codex Sinaiticus ) (Codicem Alexandrinum)
He-man Called "THE SINGER"
1 Chr 25:5 King's seerer in the matters of God
1 Chr XV 16-22 "The Vocal & Instrumental Music of the Temple Service in the Reign of David"
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