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Interpretation Of "princes Of The World"


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#1 Landmark

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Posted 12 November 2003 - 10:20 PM

I've been looking at I Corinthians 2:6-8

Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought: But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, [even] the hidden [wisdom], which God ordained before the world unto our glory: Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known [it], they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

The reason why I am looking at this verse is because I am taking Revelation 1:7, Zechariah 12:10, and this passage together and drawing a conclusion about who shall be raised at the return of Christ. I believe that the unfaithful and faithful will be raised, one to corruption and the other to incorruption. I simply am looking at a set of passages I had never considered before to support that belief.

In the Greek, the phrase "of the princes" is archon which is also tranlated as ruler, chief, magistrate, etc... My first question is why does this Greek word get translated in a singular form i.e. Mark 3:22, John 14:30 implying one person....and yet in a plural form i.e. John 7:48, Acts 4:26 implying a whole group?? In all instances the Greek word is the same. I was wondering what singular or plural connotation the word has, if any...or can it be applied both ways?

This of importance because of the second phrase highlighted, they would not have crucified the Lord of glory. The word crucified in the Greek is in the aorist tense, active voice, and indicative mood. Let me copy a section from a Bible dictionary concerning the definition of that Greek aorist tense:

The aorist tense is characterized by its emphasis on punctiliar
action; that is, the concept of the verb is considered without
regard for past, present, or future time. There is no
direct or clear English equivalent for this tense
, though it is
generally rendered as a simple past tense in most translations.
The English reader need not concern himself with most of these
finer points concerning the aorist tense
, since in most cases
they cannot be rendered accurately in English translation,
being fine points of Greek exegesis only. The common practice
of rendering an aorist by a simple English past tense should
suffice in most cases
.

That is unbelievable to me to read that!!!!!! :fury:

On the contrary it alters the meaning of the passage entirely!! In english that passage comes across that Paul was alone referring to some group of people that crucified Jesus way back then, but it really is referring to an active crucifixion that ALL the princes of this age continue to commit. Hebrews 6:6 If they shall fall away, to renew them again unto repentance; seeing they crucify to themselves the Son of God afresh, and put [him] to an open shame. Even we can do this today.

Therefore, Revelation 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they [also] which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen. Once again they which pierced him is in the aorist tense, active voice, and indicative mood!!! John agrees that it is a continuing piercing!! :shrug:

Acts 4:26-28 The kings of the earth stood up, and the rulers were gathered together against the Lord, and against his Christ. For of a truth against thy holy child Jesus, whom thou hast anointed, both Herod, and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles, and the people of Israel, were gathered together, For to do whatsoever thy hand and thy counsel determined before to be done. Peter, John, and his fellows in this passage ALSO agree when they quote the prophet David from Psalm 2. Were gathered together is again, in the aorist tense. This was years after Jesus was crucified, and yet the aorist tense is used!!


To sum up, I see that I Corinthians 2:6-8 is laying the blame of the "crucifixion of the Son of God afresh" to the charge of the princes of this age. And because of that, it is the princes of this age "who pierced him." They must be raised to see Christ when he returns, and to receive their just reward. Not only "they" but anyone who is "ashamed" of the Lord at his return will have the charge of the crucifixion laid to their account. It is the unfaithful who have pierced Jesus with their lives, their attitudes, and their actions. Hebrews 10:29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?

Matthew 25:40 And the King shall answer and say unto them, Verily I say unto you, Inasmuch as ye have done [it] unto one of the least of these my brethren, ye have done [it] unto me.

Thoughts?? any Greek scholars can answer my question in the 3rd paragraph?

Edited by Landmark Baptist, 13 November 2003 - 04:21 PM.

Joel 2:7, 11 "They shall run like mighty men; they shall climb the wall like men of war; and they shall march every one on his ways, and they shall not break their ranks:...And the LORD shall utter his voice before his army: for his camp [is] very great: for [he is] strong that executeth his word: for the day of the LORD [is] great and very terrible; and who can abide it?"

#2 Linktomillennium

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Posted 14 May 2005 - 12:24 AM

:shy: Princes of This World = Israel.

Jacob was used ambigiously; single 10 Tribes separated from Judah; and plural for all 12 Tribles.
"Prince & Princes of this world" are also ambigious; the plural relating to all Israelites; and the singular representing the shepherds of Israel.

And they are everywhere condemned.

Consider the entire context of the entire chapter.

They were "princes" because they were the "children of God" having God's power demonstrated in their victory or defeat; usually predicted ahead of time.

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#3 elpis

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Posted 18 May 2005 - 05:03 PM

Hello Landmark,

You said:

Quote

In the Greek, the phrase "of the princes" is archon which is also tranlated as ruler, chief, magistrate, etc... My first question is why does this Greek word get translated in a singular form i.e. Mark 3:22, John 14:30 implying one person....and yet in a plural form i.e. John 7:48, Acts 4:26 implying a whole group?? In all instances the Greek word is the same. I was wondering what singular or plural connotation the word has, if any...or can it be applied both ways?

Sorry I didnt see this before.

The simple answer is that the noun is singular in Mark 3:22 (archonti - dative singular) and John 14:30 (archon - nominative singular) and plural in John 7:48 (archonton - genitive plural) and Acts 4:26 (archontes - nominative plural). The Greek root word is the same in each occurrence, but the case and number are not. Remember, a concordance only gives you the occurrence of the word, but not the details of its case and number.

At I Cor 2:6 it is archonton - genitive plural - "of the rulers".

Hope it helps (and is not too late!!!).

Elpis

#4 InChristAlways

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Posted 03 March 2006 - 02:46 AM

Quote

I've been looking at I Corinthians 2:6-8

Howbeit we speak wisdom among them that are perfect: yet not the wisdom of this world, nor of the princes of this world, that come to nought: But we speak the wisdom of God in a mystery, [even] the hidden [wisdom], which God ordained before the world unto our glory: Which none of the princes of this world knew: for had they known [it], they would not have crucified the Lord of glory.

John 14:30 "I will no longer talk much with you, for the ruler/prince of this world is coming, and he has nothing in Me.

Matthew 26:47 And while He was still speaking, behold, Judas, one of the twelve, with a great multitude with swords and clubs, came from the chief priests and elders of the people.

Zeph 1:7 Be silent in the presence of the Lord GOD; For the day of the LORD [is] at hand, For the LORD has prepared a sacrifice; He has invited His guests. 8 "And it shall be, In the day of the LORD's sacrifice, That I will punish the princes and the king's children,

Quote

Sorry I didnt see this before.

The simple answer is that the noun is singular in Mark 3:22 (archonti - dative singular) and John 14:30 (archon - nominative singular) and plural in John 7:48 (archonton - genitive plural) and Acts 4:26 (archontes - nominative plural). The Greek root word is the same in each occurrence, but the case and number are not. Remember, a concordance only gives you the occurrence of the word, but not the details of its case and number.

At I Cor 2:6 it is archonton - genitive plural - "of the rulers".

Luke 21:22 "For these are the DAYS of VENGEANCE, that ALL THINGS which are WRITTEN may be FULFILLED1 Peter 4:7 But the End of ALL THINGS is NIGH at Hand; therefore be serious and watchful in your prayers.!





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