Who wrote James?
#1
Posted 12 October 2009 - 10:49 AM
Is that right? What's the evidence for it?
Thanks
"Whom have I in heaven but you? And there is nothing on earth that I desire besides you."
Psalm 73:25
#2
Posted 12 October 2009 - 11:12 AM
Dan2, on Oct 12 2009, 11:49 AM, said:
Is that right? What's the evidence for it?
Thanks
Read more: http://wiki.answers....e#ixzz1K0LLUt00
#4
Posted 12 October 2009 - 12:36 PM
Dan2, on Oct 12 2009, 11:49 AM, said:
Is that right? What's the evidence for it?
Thanks
Hi Dan2
I don't think there is any definitive scriptural evidence that it was the Lord's brother, although the epistle is chock full of references and allusions to the words of Jesus in the Gospels. There's a useful chart of these in Nelsons book of maps and charts. Let me know if you don't have a copy and I'll send it to you.
D
#5
Posted 12 October 2009 - 01:42 PM
Not that I ever thought it was that important.
#6
Posted 12 October 2009 - 02:29 PM
#7
Posted 12 October 2009 - 02:31 PM
nsr, on Oct 12 2009, 07:29 AM, said:
#8
Posted 12 October 2009 - 02:33 PM
#9
Posted 12 October 2009 - 02:35 PM
#10
Posted 12 October 2009 - 02:47 PM
#11
Posted 12 October 2009 - 03:52 PM
nsr, on Oct 12 2009, 03:47 PM, said:
It is thought to have been written shortly after the beginning of Acts 8 when many were scattered from Jerusalem because of persecution. James 1:1 says it is written to the 12 tribes scattered abroad. The theory is that believers scattered from Jerusalem lodged with land-owning believers around the land, but these land-owners (the rich) took advantage of this new vulnerable workforce (the poor) that had landed in their lap and this forms something of a theme in the epistle.
This would make James the first piece of the NT to be published, which is perhaps why there is so much reference to the preaching of Jesus. Both Jameses were still alive at Acts 8, so this wonderful theory doesn't help one jot in deciding who wrote it - but I thought I'd say it anyway as a complete distraction!
D
#12
Posted 12 October 2009 - 04:03 PM
#13
Posted 12 October 2009 - 06:19 PM
So I guess it's purely based on allusions to other parts of scripture, and the odd bit of incidental evidence here and there.
It's a shame really, because you can't necessarily put it into a specific context when reading/studying it.
"Whom have I in heaven but you? And there is nothing on earth that I desire besides you."
Psalm 73:25
#14
Posted 12 October 2009 - 06:22 PM
Davvers, on Oct 12 2009, 01:36 PM, said:
I wouldn't mind having a look if you could get a copy of it to me please. Thanks.
"Whom have I in heaven but you? And there is nothing on earth that I desire besides you."
Psalm 73:25
#15
#17
Posted 14 October 2009 - 05:27 AM
Davvers, on Oct 12 2009, 04:52 PM, said:
This would make James the first piece of the NT to be published, which is perhaps why there is so much reference to the preaching of Jesus. Both Jameses were still alive at Acts 8, so this wonderful theory doesn't help one jot in deciding who wrote it - but I thought I'd say it anyway as a complete distraction!
D
#18
Posted 14 October 2009 - 05:53 AM
Even so, come, Lord Jesus
#19
#20
Posted 14 October 2009 - 02:41 PM
Elimelech, on Oct 14 2009, 06:53 AM, said:
Ah yes, I'd forgotten about this! v.21 is an excellent point if it was the Lord's brother who wrote the epistle, thanks for the reminder! I suppose, however, that this is still going on scriptural allusions and therefore is not definite proof of authorship.
Thanks
"Whom have I in heaven but you? And there is nothing on earth that I desire besides you."
Psalm 73:25
#21
Posted 14 October 2009 - 02:50 PM
Davvers, on Oct 14 2009, 10:45 AM, said:
D
I've got it!
"Whom have I in heaven but you? And there is nothing on earth that I desire besides you."
Psalm 73:25
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