It's this:
Nobody in the gospels, apart from 2 people, EVER speaks to Jesus, and uses the name 'Jesus'. 'Lord' is frequently used when speaking to Him, but apart from Legion and Bartimaeus, there is no record of anybody else doing so.
The opposition says 'this man', 'this fellow' - as terms of contempt and insult, I wouldn't be surprised.
At Capernaum and Nazareth, it's 'this man', 'the carpenter's son'. He was a well known local lad - but they never use His name. So it seems anyway.
If it is a term of opprobrium as it seems to be, then we can understand how Pilate completely irritated and annoyed the Jews, by writing 'JESUS OF NAZARETH' on the sign on the cross. He names Him and now adds further insult to injury by saying 'THE king of the Jews'. The real one.
He meant MESSIAH, but probably didn't know or want to use the word.
Which brings up another very interesting point. Did Pilate end by believing in Jesus, as his centurion (and his wife!) obviously did? And surely, the centurion at Capernaum's act and words, and belief in Jesus' power to heal, and the consequences of that, MUST have become known to Pilate and (especially) his wife. Such things could not POSSIBLY have remained concealed from him, given the eminence and importance of his centurion.
He defends Jesus, no fewer than 5 times, maybe 6. He puts up his sign, The King of The Jews = Messiah! - maybe sardonically, maybe not: but if not, where does that lead us?
He sounds as if he expects (and therefore believes in) the resurrection, by saying 'you've got a guard; make the tomb as secure as you can.' Implying, I think, 'A fat lot of good it's going to do you anyway'.
And finally, he grants Jesus' body to Joseph of Arimathea, his final act recorded in scripture. A deed of major kindness to the Lord and His Father.
Why on earth would he do a thing like that? It must have been contrary to every procedure they ever had in the book of rules. They would normally have slung the body into Gehenna without a second thought: as they did the thieves. But not Jesus. Pilate permits the burial. Out of sheer respect, I believe, and probably a certain amount of guilt, because he had had to crucify someone he knew to be a perfectly innocent man.
It might be worth making the point too, that this final act put his career in fearsome jeopardy.
Jesus was a political prisoner of considerable magnitude. The Jews were claiming treason against Rome. Now imagine the situation as if it were taking place today.
Suppose this guy who has just been released from prison where he was incarcerated for the bombing of the plane at Lockerbie, died and was buried in the designated tomb of a senior member of the government, at the order of the Prime Minister,and everybody found out about it. Can you imagine the outrage, uproar and political consequences to the Prime Minister?
The queen would probably have his head, if she had the authority to do so.
Just so here. The emperor MUST have heard of it - and when he did, Pilate was a marked man, and his political career in flames, and he knew it. That would be my prediction, anyway. Maybe somebody can tell us what did happen. Did he end up as governor of Outer Mongolia, I wonder.
Whatever happened, he permitted Jesus to be buried, perhaps in an effort to make amends for having had to order His execution. He had defended Him to the very best of his ability. He declared him to be the Messiah, the King of the Jews. He was, it seems, waiting for His resurrection.
Whoever gives a prophet a cup of cold water, in the name of a prophet, will in no wise lose his reward. Will the Lord have mercy on this man?
Edited by Asyncritus, 25 August 2009 - 02:13 PM.














