Abishua, on Aug 7 2009, 08:32 PM, said:
"the Spirit of messiah within them foretold all the suffering of messiah and his after-glory, and they pondered when or how this was to come;" (1Pe1:11)
This scripture verse was recently brought up to prove the pre-existance of Christ. I feel it is speaking of messianic prophecy.
What is your opinion?
As we can see from v 10, Peter is writing here about the (OT) prophets. They foretold the coming of Christ, speaking of both his sufferings and his glory.
V 11 says that it was "the Spirit of Christ" which indicated these things to them. We know that the prophets were inspired to write what they did by means of the Holy Spirit, the power of God which drove them to convey the words God wanted. V 12 actually tells us that this is how God works: "...these things which now have been announced to you through those who preached the gospel to you by the Holy Spirit sent from heaven". Evidently what Peter calls "the Spirit of Christ" in v 11 is the same as "the Holy Spirit sent from heaven" in v 12.
So why does Peter refer to the Holy Spirit in this way? Two suggestions:
1. It was the Spirit of Christ because the Holy Spirit was revealing things
about Christ (not that it was coming
from Christ, because of course Christ hadn't yet been born when the OT prophets spoke).
2. It was the Spirit of Christ because it was the same power from God by why Jesus spoke. Have a look at John 3 v 34, for instance: "He whom God has sent [Jesus] speaks the words of God; for He [God] gives the Spirit [to Jesus] without measure."
I hope that helps. This passage doesn't require Jesus to have been alive already as the OT prophets were prophesying.