Gen 3:16 "Teshuqa"
#1
Posted 17 May 2009 - 08:16 PM
Gen 3:16 Gen 4:7 and Song of Songs 7:10
In all three cases the word is translated "turning" in the Septuagint.
Also, the Early Church Fathers seem to be ignorant of any other sense by "turning" for this word. All of these employ "turning": Philo (a Jew - not an ECF - who died 60AD), Clement of Rom (d.100), Irenaeus (d. 202), Tertullian (born 160), Origen (b. 186), Epiphanius (b. 310 ) Jerome (b. 335) Ambrose (b.340) Augustine (b354) and Theodoret (b. 386).
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#2
Posted 17 May 2009 - 11:34 PM
Koehler, on L., Baumgartner, W., Richardson, M., & Stamm, J. J. (1999, c1994-1996). The Hebrew and Aramaic lexicon of the Old Testament. Volumes 1-4 combined in one electronic edition. (electronic ed.) (1801). Leiden; New York: E.J. Brill, said:
Harris, on R. L., Harris, R. L., Archer, G. L., & Waltke, B. K. (1999, c1980). Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (electronic ed.) (913). Chicago: Moody Press., said:
This noun appears only three times in the ot, once in Song 7:10 [H 11]. The woman says of her beloved: “I am my beloved’s and his ‘desire’ is for me.” The two remaining references are Gen 3:16 and 4:7. In the latter passage God is speaking to Cain and says to him that sin is like a crouching beast “hungering, intent upon” Cain. In the former passage God says, “Your ‘desire’ shall be to your husband and he shall rule over you.” This is obviously neither an intensification nor a warping of a pre-existing hierarchy between the sexes for no such hierarchy is alluded to.
There are two differences between the Gen passage (3:16) and that in the Song of Solomon. In the former the reference is to the wife’s desire for her husband. In the latter it is the bride-groom’s desire for the bride. Second, in the Gen passage the reference to “desire” is in a context of sin and judgment. In the latter, the reference is in a context of joy and love.
Swanson, on J. (1997). Dictionary of Biblical Languages with Semantic Domains : Hebrew (Old Testament) (electronic ed.) (DBLH 9592). Oak Harbor: Logos Research Systems, Inc., said:
Brown, on F., Driver, S. R., & Briggs, C. A. (2000). Enhanced Brown-Driver-Briggs Hebrew and English Lexicon. Strong's, TWOT, and GK references Copyright 2000 by Logos Research Systems, Inc. (electronic ed.) (1003). Oak Harbor, WA: Logos Research Systems., said:
Gesenius, on W., & Tregelles, S. P. (2003). Gesenius' Hebrew and Chaldee lexicon to the Old Testament Scriptures. Translation of the author's Lexicon manuale Hebraicum et Chaldaicum in Veteris Testamenti libros, a Latin version of the work first published in 1810-1812 under title: Hebräisch-deutsches Handwörterbuch des Alten Testaments.; Includes index. (876). Bellingham, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc., said:
Secundum magnam misericordiam tuam.
Et secundum multitudinem miserationum tuarum
dele iniquitatem meam.
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Wesley answered “Thank you, sir. Your letter was superfluous, however, as I already knew the Lord has no need for my ‘book-learning,’ as you put it. However—although the Lord has not directed me to say so—on my own responsibility I would like to say to you that the Lord does not need your ignorance, either.”
Osborne & Woodward, ‘Handbook for Bible study’, pp. 13-14 (1979)
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Apologetics
#3
Posted 17 May 2009 - 11:37 PM
Dawn, on May 18 2009, 04:16 AM, said:
Because they just followed the LXX, not the Hebrew.
Secundum magnam misericordiam tuam.
Et secundum multitudinem miserationum tuarum
dele iniquitatem meam.
______________________________________________________________________
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Wesley answered “Thank you, sir. Your letter was superfluous, however, as I already knew the Lord has no need for my ‘book-learning,’ as you put it. However—although the Lord has not directed me to say so—on my own responsibility I would like to say to you that the Lord does not need your ignorance, either.”
Osborne & Woodward, ‘Handbook for Bible study’, pp. 13-14 (1979)
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Apologetics
#4
Posted 18 May 2009 - 11:09 AM
Harris, on R. L., Harris, R. L., Archer, G. L., & Waltke, B. K. (1999, c1980). Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (electronic ed.) (913). Chicago: Moody Press., said:
There are two differences between the Gen passage (3:16) and that in the Song of Solomon. In the former the reference is to the wife’s desire for her husband. In the latter it is the bride-groom’s desire for the bride. Second, in the Gen passage the reference to “desire” is in a context of sin and judgment. In the latter, the reference is in a context of joy and love.
Who says so? Does the Bible really say that marriage after the fall is a curse? That is the "implication" if we read "desire" as a context of "sin and judgement" ? Just exploring this.
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#6
Posted 18 May 2009 - 12:13 PM
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#7
Posted 18 May 2009 - 12:55 PM
An alternative translation is offered by the NET Bible:
[indent]
To the woman he said, “I will greatly increase your labor pains; with pain you will give birth to children. You will want to control your husband, but he will dominate you.”
[/indent]
The footnote reads as follows:
[indent]
tn Heb “and toward your husband [will be] your desire.” The nominal sentence does not have a verb; a future verb must be supplied, because the focus of the oracle is on the future struggle.
The precise meaning of the noun תְּשׁוּקָה (tÿshuqah, “desire”) is debated. Many interpreters conclude that it refers to sexual desire here, because the subject of the passage is the relationship between a wife and her husband, and because the word is used in a romantic sense in Song 7:11 HT (7:10 ET). However, this interpretation makes little sense in Gen 3:16.
First, it does not fit well with the assertion “he will dominate you.” Second, it implies that sexual desire was not part of the original creation, even though the man and the woman were told to multiply. And third, it ignores the usage of the word in Gen 4:7 where it refers to sin’s desire to control and dominate Cain. (Even in Song of Songs it carries the basic idea of “control,” for it describes the young man’s desire to “have his way sexually” with the young woman.)
In Gen 3:16 the Lord announces a struggle, a conflict between the man and the woman. She will desire to control him, but he will dominate her instead. This interpretation also fits the tone of the passage, which is a judgment oracle. See further Susan T. Foh, “What is the Woman’s Desire?” WTJ 37 (1975): 376-83.
[/indent]
Nobody is saying that marriage after the fall is a curse. But whichever way you interpret Genesis 3:16, it does appear that the husband/wife relationship changed as a result of the fall.
#8
Posted 18 May 2009 - 01:27 PM
Evangelion, on May 18 2009, 01:55 PM, said:
Anyhow, I'm not convinced Eve sought to control her husband after the fall, or that it was a "punishment". Why would God want to punish Eve with a desire to control her husband? How cruel is that to a human being? So I think that may be a fallcious argument - I'm not sure - but I am thinking about it.
Also I think Eve was a believer and not a pagan woman who was out to "dominate" her husband - she believed God when he said that she would bring forth seed that would bruise the serpent's head because when she gave birth to Cain she said "I have gotten a man from the Lord".
But certainly for Christian couples married in the Lord there should be no "power struggles" at all - and nothing of this "desire" to control - by either gender.
Recently I am very interested in a more biblical egalitarian approach to Christian marriage, for the simple reason that in my own marriage we both thought it would be good to explore this different angle - an angle which neither of us had ever considered or even entered our heads - and yet within 24 hours of trying it and endeavouring to retrain our approach on it, the egalitarian values gave us a totally new and positive dimension to our relationship as husband and wife which we had never experienced before (as opposed to the more traditional "complementarian" approach with male headship which occasionally didn't work for us, producing misunderstanding, resentment and pain on both sides). So we've decided to continue learning about a more biblical egalitarian approach for now and see how it goes - but it is not easy as we are both very much conditioned to the trad. view of man over woman and woman must submit, but we are finding our way, and so far it is good for us (but for others I understand the complementarian way works best - each to decide for themselves).
However, from this I am exploring how this might relate to Christ and the ecclesia.
I have some other points, but time is lacking, but basically it seems all three verses should really read the same in order for them to make sense.
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#10
Posted 18 May 2009 - 01:40 PM
#11
Posted 18 May 2009 - 01:52 PM
#12
Posted 18 May 2009 - 01:55 PM
Jeremy, on May 18 2009, 05:40 AM, said:
#13
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:09 PM
Richie, on May 18 2009, 02:55 PM, said:
'Then to Adam He said, "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'; cursed is the ground because of you; in toil you will eat of it all the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow for you; and you will eat the plants of the field; by the sweat of your face you will eat bread, till you return to the ground, because from it you were taken; for you are dust, and to dust you shall return." '
Adam sinned against God, and he was punished for it - end of story. The curse, the toil and the death weren't there before; now they were. I don't see any hint about original sin in this. Disobedience = death. Simple as that.
#14
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:16 PM
#15
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:19 PM
Dawn, on May 18 2009, 08:09 PM, said:
Harris, on R. L., Harris, R. L., Archer, G. L., & Waltke, B. K. (1999, c1980). Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament (electronic ed.) (913). Chicago: Moody Press., said:
There are two differences between the Gen passage (3:16) and that in the Song of Solomon. In the former the reference is to the wife’s desire for her husband. In the latter it is the bride-groom’s desire for the bride. Second, in the Gen passage the reference to “desire” is in a context of sin and judgment. In the latter, the reference is in a context of joy and love.
Who says so? Does the Bible really say that marriage after the fall is a curse? That is the "implication" if we read "desire" as a context of "sin and judgement" ? Just exploring this.
The comment didn't say that marriage after the fall is a curse. It just said that the word for 'desire' in Genesis 3:16 takes place in the context of sin and judgment.
Secundum magnam misericordiam tuam.
Et secundum multitudinem miserationum tuarum
dele iniquitatem meam.
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Wesley answered “Thank you, sir. Your letter was superfluous, however, as I already knew the Lord has no need for my ‘book-learning,’ as you put it. However—although the Lord has not directed me to say so—on my own responsibility I would like to say to you that the Lord does not need your ignorance, either.”
Osborne & Woodward, ‘Handbook for Bible study’, pp. 13-14 (1979)
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Apologetics
#16
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:21 PM
Richie, on May 18 2009, 03:16 PM, said:
Quote
#17
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:24 PM
#18
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:27 PM
#19
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:34 PM
Dawn, on May 18 2009, 10:27 PM, said:
Evangelion, on May 18 2009, 01:55 PM, said:
Probably not. It's in the Westminster Theological Journal (37:376-384), 1975. I've attached it. Ive also attached a review of a critique of the article (from Bibliotheca Sacra).
Quote
All you need is right there in Ephesians 5. That homily of Chrysostom's on Ephesians 5 is about as good as it gets from early Christian commentary, on any subject. Chrysostom was a complementarian, not an egalitarian, but I don't think you'll find anything there which you'll disagree with, and much which you will consider very favourably. I've attached that as well.
Attached Files
Secundum magnam misericordiam tuam.
Et secundum multitudinem miserationum tuarum
dele iniquitatem meam.
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Wesley answered “Thank you, sir. Your letter was superfluous, however, as I already knew the Lord has no need for my ‘book-learning,’ as you put it. However—although the Lord has not directed me to say so—on my own responsibility I would like to say to you that the Lord does not need your ignorance, either.”
Osborne & Woodward, ‘Handbook for Bible study’, pp. 13-14 (1979)
______________________________________________________________________
Apologetics
#20
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:48 PM
#21
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:50 PM
Perhaps God was telling Eve that from then on she would turn to her husband for counsel & advice when confronted by dodgy snake-like reasoning.
#22
Posted 18 May 2009 - 02:51 PM
Secundum magnam misericordiam tuam.
Et secundum multitudinem miserationum tuarum
dele iniquitatem meam.
______________________________________________________________________
______________________________________________________________________
Wesley answered “Thank you, sir. Your letter was superfluous, however, as I already knew the Lord has no need for my ‘book-learning,’ as you put it. However—although the Lord has not directed me to say so—on my own responsibility I would like to say to you that the Lord does not need your ignorance, either.”
Osborne & Woodward, ‘Handbook for Bible study’, pp. 13-14 (1979)
______________________________________________________________________
Apologetics
#23
Posted 18 May 2009 - 03:49 PM
Richie, on May 18 2009, 02:52 PM, said:
#24
Posted 18 May 2009 - 04:00 PM
#25
Posted 18 May 2009 - 04:06 PM
my babe said:
Hmm, that makes a lot more sense than anything I said.
#26
Posted 18 May 2009 - 04:06 PM
Quote
Quote
Edited by nsr, 18 May 2009 - 04:07 PM.
#27
Posted 18 May 2009 - 04:07 PM
#28
Posted 19 May 2009 - 11:15 AM
Evangelion, on May 18 2009, 02:33 PM, said:
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#29
Posted 19 May 2009 - 11:20 AM
Richie, on May 18 2009, 02:55 PM, said:
Jeremy, on May 18 2009, 05:40 AM, said:
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
#30
Posted 19 May 2009 - 11:22 AM
Jeremy, on May 18 2009, 03:09 PM, said:
Richie, on May 18 2009, 02:55 PM, said:
'Then to Adam He said, "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'; cursed is the ground because of you; in toil you will eat of it all the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow for you; and you will eat the plants of the field; by the sweat of your face you will eat bread, till you return to the ground, because from it you were taken; for you are dust, and to dust you shall return." '
Adam sinned against God, and he was punished for it - end of story. The curse, the toil and the death weren't there before; now they were. I don't see any hint about original sin in this. Disobedience = death. Simple as that.
"Let nothing be done through strife or vainglory; but in lowliness of mind let each esteem other better than themselves" Philippians 2:3
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