John 5:17-18 - you said the Jewish leaders - by did Jesus make claim to this?
John 5:22-23 - does Jesus claim to be God the Son?
John 8:57-58 - the fall of Adam in the garden, did God have a plan of salvation for man-kind, was this known before Abraham - it was in the mind of God, hence, God's word became flesh in that there was Saviour, even our Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God, NOT God the Son.
1.–“Before Abraham was, I am” (John 8:58).
This sentence is quoted to prove that the Lord Jesus was in existence before Abraham – that is, Before Abraham was, Jesus was.
Unfortunately for the defenders of this doctrine, this statement by Jesus does not say that. There is a significant difference. And surely a difference with an important meaning. If Jesus had meant to say, “Before Abraham was, I was,” would He not have said so? But by using the rather strange expression, “Before Abraham was, I am,” He must have meant what He said, and there must have been a meaning attaching to it. What does the sentence mean?
If we look carefully at the chapter we shall find the meaning quite clearly. How often would these seeming difficulties be swept away by simply reading the context!
In verses 24 and 28 an almost similar expression occurs, and it becomes an identical one, when we take into account the reason of the word in these two verses, which appears in italics. In ordinary literature words appearing in italics are to be emphasized, but in the Authorised Version of the Scriptures, it is the notification by the Translators to the reader that there is no authority in the original writings for that word. The Translators were of opinion that they were justified in concluding that it was implied, but they candidly acknowledge by the use of the italics that the word is not definitely authorised: that is, that there’s no word in the original writings for it. Readers are at perfect liberty to omit it in their readings.
By exercising this option, we have the precise expression appearing twice in this chapter, other than the sentence under consideration. It will also be found in chapter 13., verse 19.
What meaning did Jesus attach to this expression? Verse 28 clearly shows:–
“When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as the Father hath taught me, I speak these things.”
What did they learn when the Son of man had been lifted up?
“Now when the centurion, and they that were with him, watching Jesus, saw the earthquake, and those things that were done, they feared greatly, saying, Truly this was the Son of God” (Matt. 27:54).
But why connect this with Abraham? What was the “day of Christ” that Abraham rejoiced to see (John 8:56), and why should he, who had so long been dead, look forward to such a day?
At the birth of Jesus, the father of John, being filled with the Holy Spirit, gives the reason why Jesus connects Abraham with the “day of Christ”:–
“And his father Zacharias was filled with the Holy Spirit, and prophesied, saying, Blessed be the Lord God of Israel; for he hath visited and redeemed his people, and hath raised up an horn of salvation for us in the house of his servant David; as he spake by the mouth of his holy prophets . . . to perform the mercy promised to our fathers, and to remember his holy covenant, the oath which he sware to our father Abraham” (Luke 1:67-73).
The “day of Christ” is spoken of everywhere in Scripture. It is the day when the Lord Jesus shall return from the Father’s presence with the promised times of refreshing, in accordance with His promise, “I will come again.” He comes to perform the mercy promised to the fathers; God’s holy covenant, the oath which he sware unto Abraham.
What was the covenant which God sware unto Abraham?
“I will give unto thee, and to thy seed after thee (whom Paul identifies to be Christ, – ‘and to thy seed, which is Christ,’ – Gal. 3:16), the land wherein thou art a stranger, all the land of Canaan, for an everlasting possession; and I will be their God” (Gen. 17:8).
Did this promise of Christ originate with God’s promise to Abraham? No; it was given first in Eden, as Gen. 3:15, and Paul’s comments in Titus 1:2, demonstrate.
The reason of Jesus in so speaking of Himself in relation to Abraham is quite obvious. Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day; and he saw it, and was glad. Why? Because, as we have already seen, it would bring the day of fulfilment of those great and precious promises which God had made unto him.
Abraham was the recipient of the promise, but the Lord Jesus was “He” whom God had appointed to fulfil them. Therefore, before Abraham was Christ:–
“For all the promises of God in him are yea, and in him Amen, unto the glory of God by us” (2 Cor. 1:20).
“According to the eternal purpose which he purposed in Christ Jesus our Lord” (Eph. 3:11).
White, P. E. (1996). The Doctrine of the Trinity Analytically Examined and Refuted (pp. 194–197).
John 10:29-30 - Jesus doesn't claim to be on equal terms with the Father - he was equal with God in PURPOSE.
John 20:28 - Context, what does it really mean?
4.–“My Lord and my God” (John 20:28).
In view of what has been said in this work, on pages 174 and 176, it seems unnecessary to go again into the meanings of these words. “Lord” here is Kurious, Master; and God, Theos, God, or god; as we read in Acts 7:43, “the star of your god Remphan; or in Acts 12:22, concerning Herod; the people thought “It was the voice of a god, and not a man.”
Thomas, therefore, in his overwhelming conviction at the actual personal resurrection of his Master, cries out, “My lord, my master, my theos.” None of which words convey in themselves the idea of the Eternal God.
If Jesus was the second person of the eternal Godhead, evidence must be produced from elsewhere to prove it. This expression does not do so.
White, P. E. (1996). The Doctrine of the Trinity Analytically Examined and Refuted (p. 202).
Acts 20:28: You said:
God purchased the Church with His own Blood, but it was Jesus' blood, which means that Jesus was/is God.
The verse doesn't say this, "that Jesus was/is God", again, context.